On Tue, 18 Oct 2005 22:22:09 GMT, Grinder <grinder@no.spam.maam.com>
wrote:
>Last of All wrote:
>> On Tue, 18 Oct 2005 14:16:13 GMT, Grinder <grinder@no.spam.maam.com>
>> wrote:
>>
>>
>>>Grinder wrote:
>>>
>>>
>>>>>Which of these premises are wrong?
>>>>>
>>>>>(1) Man may freely choose A or B.
>>>>>
>>>>>(2) God knows, in advance, what man will choose.
>>>>>
>>>>>(3) God cannot be wrong.
>>>
>>>Bible Bob wrote:
>>>
>>>
>>>>None. All three statements are true.
>>>
>>>If God were to know, in advance, that man will choose "A", how is the
>>>man truly free to choose A or B when he finally reaches that decision?
>>
>>
>> If I were playing a friendly game of cards with friends and the corner
>> of one of the cards was bent. The fact that I knew what that card was
>> when it was next in the stack didn't mean the shuffle wasn't fair.
>
>Is that intended to be an analogy?
Certainly, just because an outcome is known doesn't necessarily mean
the knowing influenced the outcome.
On the other hand, the whole conversation strikes me as another
"angels on the head of a pen" diversions. But then, so does a lot of
the conversation on USENET lately, I don't know, maybe I'm geting
burned out again.
Terrell
http://lastofall.blogspot.com/
http://www.lastofall.com
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