Bible Bob wrote:
> On Sun, 16 Oct 2005 09:44:15 GMT, Grinder <grinder@no.spam.maam.com>
> wrote:
>
>
>>Bible Bob wrote:
>>
>>>On Sun, 16 Oct 2005 00:45:56 GMT, Grinder <grinder@no.spam.maam.com>
>>>wrote:
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>>Allow me to break this conundrum down to its simplest form:
>>>>
>>>>Premises:
>>>>
>>>>1) Man has free will.
>>>>
>>>>2) God is omniscient.
>>>>
>>>>For a given decision, with two choices, A and B:
>>>>
>>>>3) God, being omniscient, knows the man will choose B.
>>>>
>>>>4) Man, has two choices:
>>>>
>>>> a) He freely chooses A, and shows God to be wrong,
>>>> or *not* omniscient.
>>>>
>>>> b) He freely chooses B, as God knew he would all
>>>> along.
>>>>
>>>>So here we are. There is *only one choice*, 4b, that
>>>>can be made without violating Premise #2. If, however,
>>>>man is not free to make either choice, that violoates
>>>>Premise #1.
>>>>
>>>>Where is the flaw in this logic, or what is the means
>>>>by which you can circumvent it?
>>>
>>>
>>>Your premise fails to consider that man has free will but is not
>>>omniscient.
>>
>>There is no premise that man is omniscient. What makes you think them
>>I'm requiring that?
>>
>>
>>>God is omniscient but can not act.
>>
>>Nor is there any premise that God must act -- only that He *knows*, in
>>advance, how we will act.
>
>
> Grinder,
>
> Exactly. God knows the possible choices and which choice will be made
> but does not control the outcome. Man has choices; but not the way
> you describe them. Man freely chooses A or B. God is right whether
> man choses A or B because God knows whether man will chose A or B.
> Man can not prove God wrong by his choices. God would have to predict
> that that a specific man would do A and that specific man would have
> to not do A for God to be wrong.
Which of these premises are wrong?
(1) Man may freely choose A or B.
(2) God knows, in advance, what man will choose.
(3) God cannot be wrong.
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