Bible Bob wrote:
> On Sun, 16 Oct 2005 00:45:56 GMT, Grinder <grinder@no.spam.maam.com>
> wrote:
>
>
>>Allow me to break this conundrum down to its simplest form:
>>
>>Premises:
>>
>>1) Man has free will.
>>
>>2) God is omniscient.
>>
>>For a given decision, with two choices, A and B:
>>
>>3) God, being omniscient, knows the man will choose B.
>>
>>4) Man, has two choices:
>>
>> a) He freely chooses A, and shows God to be wrong,
>> or *not* omniscient.
>>
>> b) He freely chooses B, as God knew he would all
>> along.
>>
>>So here we are. There is *only one choice*, 4b, that
>>can be made without violating Premise #2. If, however,
>>man is not free to make either choice, that violoates
>>Premise #1.
>>
>>Where is the flaw in this logic, or what is the means
>>by which you can circumvent it?
>
>
> Your premise fails to consider that man has free will but is not
> omniscient.
There is no premise that man is omniscient. What makes you think them
I'm requiring that?
> God is omniscient but can not act.
Nor is there any premise that God must act -- only that He *knows*, in
advance, how we will act.
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