Allow me to break this conundrum down to its simplest form:
Premises:
1) Man has free will.
2) God is omniscient.
For a given decision, with two choices, A and B:
3) God, being omniscient, knows the man will choose B.
4) Man, has two choices:
a) He freely chooses A, and shows God to be wrong,
or *not* omniscient.
b) He freely chooses B, as God knew he would all
along.
So here we are. There is *only one choice*, 4b, that
can be made without violating Premise #2. If, however,
man is not free to make either choice, that violoates
Premise #1.
Where is the flaw in this logic, or what is the means
by which you can circumvent it?
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