On Fri, 30 Jan 2004 17:15:08 +0000 (UTC) in free.christians, David
Jensen (David Jensen <david@dajensen-family.com>) said, directing the
reply to free.christians
>On Fri, 30 Jan 2004 16:08:47 +0000 (UTC), in free.christians
>broomhed@world.std.com (Ann Broomhead) wrote in
><7418dcc4.0401300808.32f06081@posting.google.com>:
>>"Piorokrat" <piorokrat@autograf.pl> wrote in message news:<bvd0pc$jcp$3@news.onet.pl>...
>>
>>> Nice try, Jack, but I'm afraid unless you can show me what the common
>>> ancestor between Finno-Ugric and INdo-European, then evolution doesn't apply
>>> to the origins of these language families. And if evolution can't account
>>> for the rise of labguage families, then what does? How did those language
>>> families come into being? What theory of them would be consistent with what
>>> evolution claims about man's origins?
>>>
>>> This is an important question. It was also what this argument was about when
>>> I brought it up. The architectural aside is the distractor, thrown in by
>>> someone who couldn't answer the question, so she decided to change the
>>> question. Don't criticise my debating techniques, it was Anne Broomhead who
>>> swept in with that one.
>>>
>>> Uncle Davey
>>
>>According to your claims about the Bible, all languages split when the
>>Tower of Babel was being built. This was, as I pointed out, no
>>earlier than the reign of Ur-Nammu (2112 - 2095 bce). Demonstrate to
>>us that Finno-Ugric and Indo-European date from this time (and no
>>earlier) as separate, and distinct languages.
>>
>>The Tower of Babel incident is your claim; you get to support it with
>>data.
>>
>>And how tall was the Tower of Babel supposed to be, anyhow?
>
>Tall enough to reach heaven, everyone knows that.
What? Around three feet?
Amazing.
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